Why is England so unradical ?
Rev O'Lushen | 10.02.2001 14:56
Essentially, Anderson claims that there was no "industrial Revolution", that the industrialist class was compromised by a pre existing empire based on agricultural aristocracy. What this meant is that the proletariat, which appeared with the British empire as established fact (unlike other european powers), had no radical exmple of revolution to follow. The English revolution of 1642 , Diggers, Levellers &c has its adherents of course, but the event has no historical link to the modern day workering class.
Perry's essays are collected into a book "English Questions", ISBN 0 86091 375 9. I recoomend his ideas as a new starting point for the new radicals.
Rev O'Lushen
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